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Friday, February 09, 2007

TNPG 2005 VENEREOLOGY

VENEREOLOGY

1) The following are due to vasculitis in Syphilis

a. Gumma

b. Chancre

c. Both

d. None

Answer c) Both

Reference:Anathanarayanan 7th Edition page 380

2) The most frequent cause of recurrent genital ulceration in a sexually active male is:

a. Herpes genitalis.

b. Aphthous ulcer.

c. Syphilis.

d. Chancroid.

Answer 1. Herpes genitalis.

Reference Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 132, Page 845

3) The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of:

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis.

b. Chalamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis.

c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.

d. Syphilis and chancroid.

Answer 3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.

Reference Social Hygiene Service & AIDS Unit, Department of Health, July 1998 (adapted and modified from the World Health Organisation, Regional Office for the Western Pacific)

TNPG 2005 DERMATOLOGY

DERMATOLOGY

1) Wood Lamp not useful in

a. Tinea capitis

b. Warts

c. Tinea versicolor

d. Erythrasma

Answer b) Warts

Reference: SARP - SARP 6th Edition : Page PARAS - PARAS 4th Edition : Page Sure Sucess in PG Entrance 1st Edition :

Conditions

Finding

Flexures

Accentuated

Post inflammatory

Fades

Vitiligo

Totally white

Erythrasmna(C.Minutissimum)

Coral Red

Tinea Capitis

Brilliant Green

Tinea Versicolor

Dull Yellow

Pseudomonas

Pale Blue/Green

Tuberous Sclerosis (Ash Leaf)

Blue white

Urine in Porphyria Cutanea Tarda

Pinkish Red

2) Poikiloderma presents with

a. Atrophy,

b. Telangiectasia,

c. Pigmentary changes

d. All of the above

Answer d: All of the above

Reference: Poikiloderma of Civatte refers to erythema associated with a mottled pigmentation seen on the sides of the neck, most commonly in women. Civatte first described the condition in 1923. Poikiloderma of Civatte is a condition affecting the skin. Many consider it to be a reaction pattern of the skin and not a disease. The term poikiloderma refers to the combination of atrophy, telangiectasia, and pigmentary changes (both hypopigmentation and hyperpigmentation). Poikilodermatous lesions may be seen in certain genodermatoses (Rothmund-Thomson syndrome, Bloom syndrome, dyskeratosis congenita), in connective tissue diseases (dermatomyositis, lupus erythematosus), in parapsoriasis/mycosis fungoides, and in radiodermatitis.

3) PUVA therapy is indicated in

a. Psoriasis

b. Vitiligo

c. Alopecia Areata

d. Any of the above

Answer d) Any of the above

Reference: Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 57

TNPG 2005 PSYCHIATRY

PSYCHIATRY

1) Treatment of ADHD involves the following drugs except

a. Amphetamine

b. Antidepressants

c. Barbituarates

d. Lithium carbonate

Answer C) Barbituates

Reference:Nelson 15th Edition Chapter 30.2

2) The following Delusions are common in depression except

a. Delusion of poverty

b. Delusion of Nihilism

c. Delusion of grandeur

d. Delusion of persecution

Answer c) Delusion of Grandeur

Reference: Ahuja 4th Edition page 67

3) Disorientation is most commonly seen in

a. Organic Brain damage

b. Schizophrenia

c. Mania

d. None of the above

Answer a) Organic Brain Damage

Reference: Ahuja 4th Edition page 67

4) Modified ECT is not given frequently in routine practice because of

a. Non availability of anesthetist

b. Myocardial infarction

c. Osteoporosis

d. All of the above

Answer A) Non availability of anaesthetists

Reference

5) About Gille de tourette syndrome

a. Upper limb tics

b. Appears prior to 7 years of age

c. shouting obscene words

d. All of these

Answer d) all of these

Reference: Nelson 15th Edition Chapter 22

6) Anitdote for methanol

a. Ethanol

b. BAL

c. EDTA

d. None of the above

Answer a) Ethanol

Reference: Tripathi 5th Edition Page 355

7) All of the following are True about Buspirone except

a. Is a Azapirone

b. Produces severe sedation

c. Antidepressant

d. No anticonvulsant action

Answer : b) Produces severe sedation

Reference: KDTripathi 5th Edition Page 401

TNPG 2005 RADIODIAGNOSIS & RADIOTHERAPHY

RADIODIAGNOSIS & RADIOTHERAPHY

1) Double Shadow is seen in

a. Mitral Stenosis

b. IBD

c. Pinealoma

d. None of the above

Answer : a) Mitral Stenosis

Reference: Harrison 15th Edition

2) Hilar dance on fluoroscopy is seen in cases of

a. ASD

b. Bronchectasis

c. Both

d. None

Answer : C) Both

Reference: Harrison 15th Edition

3) Consistent feature of Pulmonary Tuberculosis

a. Upper lobe infiltrates

b. Cavities

c. Miliary mottlings

d. Nothing

Answer : d) Nothing

Reference: Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 169 the initial suspicion of pulmonary tuberculosis is often based on abnormal chest radiographic findings in a patient with respiratory symptoms. Although the "classic" picture is that of upper lobe disease with infiltrates and cavities, virtually any radiographic pattern from a normal film or a solitary pulmonary nodule to diffuse alveolar infiltrates in a patient with ARDS may be seen. In the era of AIDS, no radiographic pattern can be considered pathognomonic

4) Water’s view is

a. Anteroposterior view

b. Occipitomental view

c. Occipitofrontal view

d. Lateral View

Answer : b) Occipitomental

Reference: Logan Turner

5) Gray is a Unit for

a. Activity

b. Absorbed dose

c. Exposure

d. Dose equivalent

Answer : b) Absorbed dose

Reference: PARAS – PARAS

6) Cranio spinal irradiation is given for

a. Medulloblastomas,

b. Pineoblastomas

c. Pineal germinoma

d. All of the above

Answer : d) All of the above

Reference: Harrison 15th Edition

7) Rhabdomyosarcoma is treated by

a. Chemotherapy

b. Radiation

c. Surgery

d. All of the above

Answer : d) All of the above

Reference: OP Ghai 6th Edition Page 576

8) Which one of the following is a recognized X-Ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis?

a. Juxta-articular osteosclerosis.

b. Sacroilitis.

c. Bone erosions.

d. Peri-articular calcification.

Answer 3. Bone erosions.

Reference Given in Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 312 Page 1933

9) High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality for evaluating:

a. Pleural effusion.

b. Interstitial lung disease.

c. Lung mass.

d. Mediastinal adenopathy.

Answer 2. Interstitial lung disease.

Reference Textbook of Radiology and Imaging - 7th Edition - David Sutton Page 187 Harrison 15th Edition

10) CT scan of a patient with history of head injury shows a biconvex hyperdense lesion displacing the grey-white matter interface. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Subdural hematoma.

b. Diffuse axonal injury.

c. Extradural hematoma.

d. Hemorrhagic contusion.

Answer 3. Extradural hematoma.

Reference Schwartz Surgery : 7th Edition Page 1882 : Fig 40-1 Bailey & Love,23rd, Pg-550

TNPG 2005 PAEDIATRICS

PAEDIATRICS

1) Child Copies circle by

a. 36 months

b. 24 months

c. 30 months

d. 48 months

Answer 36 months

Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 46

2) The percentage of chance of development of Respiratory Distress Syndrome in a Premature new born baby with weight 1250 to 1500 gms is

a. 90 %

b. 50 %

c. 10 %

d. 1 %

Answer a) 90 %

Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 166

3) Chest in drawing / Retraction in a child means

a. no pneumonia

b. pneumonia

c. severe pneumonia

d. None

Answer d) Severe pneumonia

Reference: Park 18th Edition Page 142

4) All are features of Marasmus except

a. Fatty liver

b. Edema

c. Decreased insulin level

d. Decreased cortisol level

Answer Edema

Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 104

5) Height of the child from 1 to 3 years increases at the rate of ….. .cm per month

a. 0.5 cm

b. 0.75 cm

c. 1 cm

d. 1.5 cm

Answer c) 1 cm

Reference: Nelson 15th Edition Table 11.5

6) IQ of a Moderate MR is

a. <>

b. 35-49

c. 50-70

d. 20-34

Answer b) 35 to 49

Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 543

7) Best investigation for esophageal atresia in a child is

a. Barium Swallow

b. Fibrotic endoscopy

c. X Ray with Controlled ryle’s tube Watersoluble Contrast

d. Rigid endoscopy

Answer c ) X Ray with Controlled ryle’s tube Watersoluble Contrast

Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 178, Nelson 15th Edition Chapter 265

8) The Drug of choice for parenteral admission for chloroquine sensitive malaria in child

a. Chloroquine

b. Mefloquine

c. Artesunate

d. Quinine

Answer a) Chloroquine

Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 246

9) Major complication of undescended testes

a. malignancy

b. torsion

c. hernia

d. sterility

Answer a) Malignancy

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition

10) Which of the following will lead to suspicion of Bartered baby syndrome

a. Multiple fracture

b. Improper History

c. Both

d. None

Answer c) Both

Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics

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