MCQsOnline - Online Collection of MCQs of Medical PG Entrance Exams.

MCQ stands for Multiple Choice Questions sometimes called as Objective type questions. Here we discuss the Old Question Papers, High Yield Points and Strategies with respect to the Indian Medical Post Graduate PG Entrance Exams like AIIMS,AIPG, JIPMER, CMC Vellore, PGI Chandigarh, UPSC, TNPSC, State PG Exams like Tamil Nadu PG (TN PG), Delhi PG, UPPG, Tamilnadu PG (TNPG), Karnataka PG, MAHE, COMED-K etc.

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Friday, February 09, 2007

TNPG 2005 ANAESTHESIA

ANAESTHESIA

1) Pulse oximeter used to measure

a. Oxygen saturation

b. Oxygen content

c. partial pressure of Oxygen

d. all of the above

Answer a) Oxygen Saturation

Reference: Ajay Yadav 47

2) Analgesia of choice in a pregnant women in CVS disease complicating pregnancy is

a. Spinal Anaesthesia

b. Epidural Anaesthesia

c. General Anaesthesia

d. Local Anaesthesia

Answer B) Epudiral Anaesthesia

Reference: Dutta 4th Edition Page 296

3) An anesthetist orders a new attendant to bring the oxygen cylinder. He will ask the attendant to identify the correct cylinder by following color code:

a. Black cylinder with white shoulders.

b. Black cylinder with gray shoulders.

c. White cylinder with black shoulders.

d. Grey cylinder with white shoulders.

Answer A).Black cylinder with white shoulders.

Reference Understanding Anaesthesia Equipments - 4th Edition Dorsch and Dorsch Page 13

4) A 25 years old male is undergoing incision and drainage of abscess under general anesthesia with spontaneous respiration. The most efficient anaesthetic circuit is:

a. Mapleson A.

b. Mapleson B.

c. Mapleson C.

d. Mapleson D.

Answer A). Mapleson A.

Reference Understanding Anaesthesia Equipments - 4th Edition Dorsch and Dorsch . Page 209

5) A 38 year old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general anaesthesia as a day care case. He wishes to resume his work after 6 hours. which one of the following induction agents is preferred:

a. Thiopentone sodium

b. Ketamine.

c. Diazepam.

d. Propofol

Answer D). Propofol

Reference Clinical Anaesthesia 3rd Edition - Morgan Page 173

6) At the end of a balanced anaesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which is the most probable relaxant the patient had received?

a. Pancuronium.

b. Gallamine.

c. Atracurium.

d. Vecuronium.

Answer C).Atracurium.

Reference Clinical Anaesthesia 3rd Edition - Morgan Page 191

TNPG 2005 ENT

ENT

1) The most common diagnosis in a young boy with history of profuse nasal bleeding is

a. Juvenile Naso pharyngeal angiofibroma

b. Nasal polyp

c. Deviated nasal septum

d. Cirrhosis

Answer : a) Juvenile Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

Reference: Dhingra 3rd Edition Page 299

2) Left sided vocal cord palsy is commonly due to

a. Left hilar bronchial carcinoma

b. Mitral Stenosis

c. Thyroid Malignancy

d. Thyroid Surgey

Answer : a) Left hilar bronchial carcinoma

Reference: Dhingra 3rd Edition Page 360

3) Why vocal cord pale

a. Vocal cord is muscle, lack of blood vessels network

b. Absence of mucosa, no blood vessels

c. absence of sub mucosa, no blood vessels

d. absence of mucosa with blood vessels

Answer : c) absence of sub mucosa, no blood vessels

Reference: Gray 38th Edition Chapter on larynx

4) Presbyacusis is

a. Age associated vision loss

b. Age associated hearing loss

c. Both

d. None

Answer : b) Age associated hearing loss

Reference: Dhingra 3rd Edition Page 47

5) Acoustic dip in audiogram in noise induced hearing loss is at

a. 4 KHz

b. 3 KHz

c. 2 KHz

d. 1 KHz

Answer : a) 4 KHz

Reference: Dhingra 3rd Edition Page 46

6) False positive fistula test

a. Perilymph fistula

b. Malignant sceloris

c. Congenital syphilis

d. Cholesteatoma

Answer : c) Congenital Syphilis

Reference: Dhingra 3rd Edition Page 53

7) Reaction time for tymphanic reflex is

a. 20 to 30 ms

b. 30 to 40 ms

c. 40 to 160 ms

d. 600 to 800 ms

Answer : c) 40 to 160 ms

Reference: ganong 22nd Edition Page 179

8) Columella effect is seen in

a. Tympanoplasty

b. Septoplasty

c. Tracheostomy

d. None of the above

Answer : a) Tympanoplasty

Reference: Dhingra 3rd Edition Page 40

TNPG 2005 OPTHALMOLOGY

OPTHALMOLOGY

1) Shield ulcers are often seen in

a. Spring Catarrh

b. Exposure keratopathy

c. Neuroparalytic keratopathy

d. None of the above

Answer : a) Spring Catarrh

Reference: Khurana 3rd Edition page 100

2) Dalen Fuch’s nodule is seen in

a. Corneal Ulcer

b. Retinitis Pigmentosa

c. Sympathetic ophthalmitis

d. None of the above

Answer : C) Syphathetic Ophthalmitis

Reference: Khurana 3rd Edition Page

3) Mydriatic used in children <>

a. Atropine

b. Cyclopentolate

c. Homatropine

d. None of the above

Answer : a) Atropine

Reference: Khurana 3rd Edition Page 68

4) Smoke Stack sign on fluorescein Angiogram is seen in

a. Central Serous Retinopathy

b. Retinitis pigmentosa

c. Retinal detachment

d. None of the above

Answer : central serous chorioretinopathy

Reference: Khurana 3rd Edition Page 263

5) The modified Bailey Lovie chart is used to assess

a. Visual acuity

b. Dark adaptation

c. Contrast difference

d. Color vision

Answer : a) Visual Acuity

Reference: The lack of standardised visual acuity charts with established norms for preschool children has resulted in a diverse variety of visual acuity tests in use for the paediatric patient. All available tests appear to have some limitations, including inadequate norms, long test times, poor reliability, and frequent use test parameters and stimuli which are different from those used with adults. This study compares results for four visual acuity test charts. A Bailey-Lovie Illiterate E chart and an abbreviated Sheridan-Gardiner test were compared with two prototype acuity charts; a modified Bailey-Lovie letter chart and an Arrow chart. A novel symbol such as an arrow constructed as a Snellan optotype incorporated into a chart on the Bailey-Lovie principle, was the test of choice. This test was interesting to preschool children and results showed significant correlation with those obtained using charts based on adult standards.

6) 100 day Glaucoma / 40 day Glaucoma

a. Traumatic

b. Post operative

c. Central retinal vein obstruction

d. Steroid induced

Answer : C) Central Retinal Vein Obstruction 254

Reference: Khurana 3rd Edition Page

7) Diopteric power of eye

a. 20

b. 30

c. 40

d. 60

Answer : d) 60 D

Reference: Khurana 3rd Edition Page 50

8) The following is a component of visual perception

a. Color Vision

b. Texture Vision

c. Movement

d. All of these

Answer : d) All of these

Reference: Ganong 22nd Ediotion page 168

TNPG 2005 ORTHOPAEDICS

ORTHOPAEDICS

1) Treatment of Intracapsular fracture neck of femur in adult

a. Skeletal traction

b. POP SPica

c. Excision of head of femur

d. Closed reduction and internal fixation

Answer c) Excision of Head of Femur

Reference: Apley 8th Edition Page 686

2) Dr.S.M.Tuli associated with

a. internal fixation

b. conservative treatment of caries spine

c. Radical treatment of spine

d. Operation for Club Foot

Answer b) Conservative Treatment of Caries Spine

Reference: Ebnezar 3rd Edition Page 501

3) Most common complication of Anterior dislocation of shoulder is

a. Recurrent dislocation

b. Myositis ossificans

c. Osteoarthritis

d. Avascular necrosis of head of humerus

Answer a) Recurrent Dislocation

Reference: Apley 8th Edition Page 290

4) Not a complication of colle’s fracture

a. Non Union

b. Mal Union

c. Sudeck’s osteodystropy

d. EPL Rupture

Answer a) Non Union

Reference: Apley 8th Edition Page 617

5) Genu varum is die to

a. Bowing of Knee

b. Bowing of Tibia

c. Bowing of Femur

d. Injury to pelvis

Answer a) Bowing of Knee

Reference: Apley 8th Edition Page 458

6) Mallet finger is

a. Fracture of Proximal phalanx

b. Capsular rupture of PIP Joint

c. Rupture of flexor tendon

d. Rupture of extensor digitorum profundus slip

Answer d) Rupture of extensor digitorum profundus slip

Reference: Apley 8th Edition Page 632

7) Caries spine most common area affected

a. Cervical

b. Dorsal

c. Lumbar

d. None of the above

Answer b) Dorsal

Reference: Ebnezar 3rd Edition Page 503

8) Which of the following is a Tumour of bone origin

a. Osteoma

b. Myeloma

c. Leukemia

d. None

Answer a) Osteoma

Reference: Apley 8th Edition Page 176

9) An eight year old boy presents with back pain and mild fever. His plain X Ray of the dorsolumbar spine reveals a solitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with preserved disc spaces. There was no associated soft tissue shadow. The most likely diagnosis is

a. Ewing 's sarcoma.

b. Tuberculosis.

c. Histiocytosis.

d. Metastasis.

Answer 3. Histiocytosis.

Reference Nelson Chapter 660 OP Ghai 5th Edition Page 473

10) Kinebock's disease is due to avascular necrosis of:

a. Femoral neck.

b. Medial cuneiform bone.

c. Lunate bone.

d. Scaphoid bone.

Answer 3. Lunate bone.

Reference Apley 8th Edition Pg-101

TNPG 2005 SURGERY

SURGERY

1) A 30 year old man, smoker developed gangrene foot. The most probable diagnosis

a. TAO

b. Atherosclerosis

c. Raynaud’s syndrome

d. None of the above

Answer: a) TAO

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 951

2) Latest Investigation for detecting adrenal and extra adrenal phaeochromocytoma is

a. CT Scan

b. Radio Iodine labeled MIBG

c. MRI

d. USG

Answer : b) Radio Iodine labeled MIBG

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 819

3) Cobra head appearance in IVU

a. Ureterocele

b. Ca Bladder

c. Renal Artery Stenosis

d. Chronic Pyelonephritis

Answer a) Ureterocele

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 1310

4) Most Common infection of Parotid gland is

a. Fungal

b. Viral

c. Bacterial

d. Parasitic

Answer : b) Viral

Reference: Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 196

5) Cystosarcoma phylloides treatment

a. Enucleation

b. Radiation

c. Radical mastectomy

d. CHemotherapy

Answer a) Enucleation

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 835

6) Treatment of Anaplastic carcinoma of Thyroid

a. Isthmusectomy

b. Hemithyroidectomy

c. Sub total thyroidectomy

d. Total Thyroidectomy

Answer a) Isthmusectomy

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 801

7) Most important prognostic factor for Malignant melanoma

a. Depth of invasion

b. White / black race

c. Lymphatic spread

d. None of these

Answer a) Depth of Invasion

Reference: Sabiston 15th Edition Chapter 21

8) True about Malignant Melanoma

a. Prognosis depends on depth of lesion

b. Spreads by local, lymphatic and blood spread

c. suspicious mole to be excised

d. All of these

Answer d) All of the above

Reference: Sabiston 15th Edition Chapter 21

9) True about Femoral hernia

a. Common in females

b. Most Common Hernia is Females

c. Both

d. None

Answer a) Common in females

Reference: Surgical Short Cases Das 2nd Edition Page 280

10) The carcinoma that spreads by blood

a. Ca cervix

b. Bladder Carcinoma

c. Renal cell carcinoma

d. Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer c) Renal Cell Carcinoma

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 1330

11) Type of renal stone in alkaline urine is

a. Uric Acid

b. Oxalate

c. Cystin

d. Calcium Phosphate

Answer d) Calcium Phosphate

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 1316

12) Painless lock jaw

a. Dental abscess

b. Submandibular abscess

c. Tetanus

d. None

Answer c) tetanus

Reference: Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 143

13) Frey’s syndrome is associated with

a. Parotid

b. Spleen

c. Lungs

d. None of the above

Answer a) Parotid

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 734

14) Which lobe of liver is related to lesser sac

a. Tuberomentale

b. Caudate lone

c. Quadrate lobe

d. Riedel’s lobe

Answer b) caudate

Reference: Gray’s Anatomy

15) Ulcer with undermined edges is

a. Tuberculosis

b. Gumma

c. Rodent Ulcer

d. Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer a) Tuberculosis

Reference: A manual of Surgery Das , page 47

16) A patient presenting with acute abdomen is being examined. On palpation of. Right hypochondrial region , there is pain on deep inspiration and the patient catches breath The diagnosis is probably

a. Acute Appendicitis

b. Acute cholecystitis

c. Rupture Spleen

d. Ca Caecum

Answer B) Acute cholecystitis

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 1105

17) M.leprae can be grown as a culture in

a. 9 banded armadillo

b. Food pad of mice

c. Both

d. None

Answer B) Both

Reference: Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 371

18) MC Cause of lymphedema all over the world is

a. HL

b. NHL

c. Filariasis

d. Bacterial infection

Answer C) Filariasis

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 976

19) Anderson – Hynes Operation is for

a. Hydronephrosis

b. Mitral Stenosis

c. AV Fistula of Lower Limb

d. Incisional hernia

Answer : A) hydronephrosis

Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 1315

20) Implanatation dermoid most commonly seen in

a. Finger

b. Skull

c. Scalp

d. Hip

Answer a) Finger

Reference: Surgical short Cases Das 2nd Edition Page 3